I may be posting in the wrong place, and I also may be showing my ignorance here, but I hope someone can answer a question:
First some background:
I recently moved some cash from my checking, where it was earning nada to a MM account, earning ~5.x%. I could move even more, don't know why I waited so long to do this.
I also am buying a 3yr CD paying 6.25% on Monday.
I also could buy a 1yr and also a 2 yr CD at around 6.0 - 6.125% from Fidelity in my brokerage acct if I take my 'winners' off the table. I just learned they have "brokerage CDs" (not a plug, but link included) with the advantage of no penalty for early withdrawal (except loss of any unpaid interest, of course)
http://personal.fidelity.com/products/fixedincome/fibankbroker.shtml
So that leaves me:
instant liquidity in checking, (1/4 of cash)
easy reach liquidity in MM, (1/4 of cash)
a no-penalty CD mini- ladder for years 1 and 2, (1/4 of cash)
regular CD for year 3 (1/4 of cash)
I had just got through rebalancing my formerly all individual stock aggressive 401(k) AA to now include small, mid, large, int'l indexes, with a bond fund, at a 80/20 equity/bond split
I guess the question is that since I now can convert existing funds (brokerage acct + cash) outside my 401(k) to very safely earning more than the piddly 4% my bond fund was going to do inside of it, why should I keep *any* bonds in the 401(k)? I figure I will have between 20 to 25% of my overall net worth in cash-like funds, earning ~ 5.5% APR, and that could represent the non-correlated returns I need to allow stocks to go up and down and still have the diversification I should have... right?