RAE
Thinks s/he gets paid by the post
I'm looking for some confirmation that I'm understanding the IRS rules correctly for taxation of capital gains on a sale of some property that I own, and am planning to sell (vacant forest land - no structures on it). I've owned the property for many years (so this is a long-term capital gain), and may be selling it this year. My understanding is that I would owe no capital gains tax on the sale as long as our total income (for my wife and I, as we file jointly) is below $74,900. In other words, if our income for the year is $50,000, and the total cap. gain on the property sale is $60,000, I could apply $24,900 of that $60,000 gain to our income (and owe no cap. gains tax on that portion) - but I would owe cap. gains tax (of 15%) on the $35,100 that is above the $74,900 limit. So, in this case, the cap. gains tax owed would be approx. $5265.
Does that sound about right? Just want to make sure I understand this correctly......thanks.
Does that sound about right? Just want to make sure I understand this correctly......thanks.