I'm not referring to a conversion but a $6500 Roth contribution using an asset rather than dollars. My understanding is that if you have taxable income higher than the contribution, then it is allowed. But seems to me there is no requirement that you use specific funds or that it be dollars vs. an asset for the contribution. I guess the only advantage of a contribution vs a conversion is that at the end of 5 years, even the last amount contributed is tax free, vs each conversion has it's own 5 year waiting period. Any other thoughts or corrections to my understanding?