OK, so you are saying that you would borrow $30K (for the fixed income portion) @ 8% = $2,400/year and invest it @ say 4% = $1,200/year interest for a net 2,400 - 1200 = $1,200 loss. And this is supposed to improve your overall return. I've got a better idea, just mail me the $1,200 loss (to reduce volatility) and skip the $30K portion of the investment.
Or, alternatively, please explain to me what I'm missing here.
I got to say I am with Patrick here. I don't understand how you come out ahead with borrowing $100K investing 70K in equities and 30K in fixed income.
I guess one way to look at the problem is as follows. With relatively low rates I can borrow $100K at 5.5%. I'm comfortable with my current AA of 60/40 to 80/20 (I think it make no sense to do this for less than 50/50 AA). Lets stick with 70/30 for the example. I invest 70K in additional equity. I have had 30K for fixed income.
My choices for fixed income right now are
CDs or treasuries at between 3.5-4% for 1-5 year up to 5% for 10 year. Zero default risk moderate interest rate risk.
TIPs at 1% real no default risk and low interest rate risk.
Mortgage backed security funds @4.75% almost zero default risk moderate interest rate risk.
Junk bond fund at 8% higher principal risk, and higher correlations with equities.
Individual CPI bonds like ISM/OSM at 10% high default risk, lower interest rates.
I can also purchase an different type of bond called paying down my mortgage, with a rate of 5.5% no default risk, and some neat refi options.
I contend that this is almost alway more attractive than any other fixed income option, if the goal is to reduce the volitality of the portfolio.
Now I can be convinced I am wrong, but I think it would require show some simulation of taking mortgage out at the prevailing interest, which result in higher portfolio survivability.