wabmester
Thinks s/he gets paid by the post
- Joined
- Dec 6, 2003
- Messages
- 4,459
Are you serious? If so, I have to point out two fundamental flaws in your logic:It can't be both. The data has to say one of those two things and not the other, right?
1) You assume there's only one "correct" way to interpret the historical data. This is absurd. Stock market performance has more correlated variables than the weather, and is much harder to predict. To assume that you can take one of those variables, like the P/E ratio, and come up with the one true interpretation is, ehrm, misguided at best.
2) You assume you can extrapolate whatever your misguided historical analysis tells you. Not unless you've discovered some new law of the stock market universe.
IMHO, one should always question the assumptions of any forward looking prediction.
For example, the underlying assumption of intercst's analysis is that the performance of the stock market in the next 50 years (or whatever your timeframe is) will be no worse than it was in the last 120 years. That is equivalent to assuming that the weather in the next 5 days will be no worse than it was in the last 12 days. Personally, the size of the data set doesn't give me a lot of confidence given the length of the withdrawal period.
The underlying assumption of the "Gordon equation" is that the GDP will continue to grow as fast as it has during our amazingly productive recent past.
The underlying assumptions of PE10 are not only that the mean P/E is the "right" P/E (i.e., that the risk premium shouldn't change over time), but that RTM will continue to happen at the same frequency it has in the past.
The more implicit assumptions you make like this, the more likely you are to be wrong.