Ronstar
Moderator Emeritus
I had an employment contract when I was part owner of our company. Terms included a 6 month notice to terminate the contract. I gave written notice to terminate the contract on 10-1-2012. When my 6 month notice expired on 4-1-2013, I agreed in a new written contract to work 960 hours before 4-1-2014.
The term of the new contract is written as "...considered to have begun on April 1, 2013 and shall continue for a period of 1 year or until otherwise terminated as hereinafter provided."
I don't want to give written notice again, because my last written notice was not accepted well by the owners last time. At that time, they felt that 6 months was not enough notice in order to complete a transition. Now the transition is complete.
I would prefer to continue to tell people that I'm only working until my contract expires on April 1, rather than give any written notice because of anticipated pushback from the bosses. Does this seem logical?
The term of the new contract is written as "...considered to have begun on April 1, 2013 and shall continue for a period of 1 year or until otherwise terminated as hereinafter provided."
I don't want to give written notice again, because my last written notice was not accepted well by the owners last time. At that time, they felt that 6 months was not enough notice in order to complete a transition. Now the transition is complete.
I would prefer to continue to tell people that I'm only working until my contract expires on April 1, rather than give any written notice because of anticipated pushback from the bosses. Does this seem logical?
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