1979dreamer
Dryer sheet wannabe
- Joined
- Mar 21, 2012
- Messages
- 17
Hi all,
I work for a pre-IPO tech company that is making good strides toward a liquidity event (likely an IPO). I recently exercised some vested stock options, and as part of that process spent some time reading the plan documents more thoroughly than I had in the past.
One thing caught my eye that seemed odd, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has some expertise and could shed light. In the document there is a call option definition (I've heard this referred to as a "callback"). It states that:
- In the event that the employee is terminated with cause, the company has the right to call all vested shares at the lower of purchase price or fair market value -- effectively erasing the benefit of these options.
- In the event that the employee voluntarily resigns, the company has the right to call 1/2 of all vested shares at fair market value and the other 1/2 at the lower of purchase price [strike price] or fair market value.
Okay -- pretty crappy if you ask me. But what I found the most odd is the definition of a date that this was all effective through. If I'm reading it right, the document states that this call option remains in effect until (1) a change in control (buyout of the company) or (2) 3 years after an IPO, whichever comes first.
So say we IPO later this year, and some number of months go by until a time where a lockup period ends and I can sell my shares. By that point I've exercised everything I've got vested and sold. Then I choose to leave -- prior to the 3 year post-IPO mark. How can the company buy back half of my shares at my cost? Can they force me to buy back the shares I sold, then sell them back to the company at a loss?
I work for a pre-IPO tech company that is making good strides toward a liquidity event (likely an IPO). I recently exercised some vested stock options, and as part of that process spent some time reading the plan documents more thoroughly than I had in the past.
One thing caught my eye that seemed odd, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has some expertise and could shed light. In the document there is a call option definition (I've heard this referred to as a "callback"). It states that:
- In the event that the employee is terminated with cause, the company has the right to call all vested shares at the lower of purchase price or fair market value -- effectively erasing the benefit of these options.
- In the event that the employee voluntarily resigns, the company has the right to call 1/2 of all vested shares at fair market value and the other 1/2 at the lower of purchase price [strike price] or fair market value.
Okay -- pretty crappy if you ask me. But what I found the most odd is the definition of a date that this was all effective through. If I'm reading it right, the document states that this call option remains in effect until (1) a change in control (buyout of the company) or (2) 3 years after an IPO, whichever comes first.
So say we IPO later this year, and some number of months go by until a time where a lockup period ends and I can sell my shares. By that point I've exercised everything I've got vested and sold. Then I choose to leave -- prior to the 3 year post-IPO mark. How can the company buy back half of my shares at my cost? Can they force me to buy back the shares I sold, then sell them back to the company at a loss?