Does anybody adjust allocation percentages based on stock market valuations? I am thinking of moving percentages up and down based on the PE10 - available for download from Yale each month - at each annual re-balancing. I know the general consensus here seems to be valuations don't matter, but my brain can't process that. Not after 2000 and 2008. And stocks being damn near flat over 13 years...
Does anybody use a metric other than PE10 for domestic markets? And then the tougher ones - foreign, emerging markets and REITs?
Seems to me we are in some completely uncharted waters here. Stocks at all time highs. Bonds at all time highs (with historically low yields). All FED and QE induced. Allocation to the market is a must. But if another 50% cut is coming, I would sure rather have 30% at stake instead of 80%...
And that 30% would still let me smile at night if the market continued to defy gravity and go up anyway...even if it makes no sense whatsover.
Does anybody use a metric other than PE10 for domestic markets? And then the tougher ones - foreign, emerging markets and REITs?
Seems to me we are in some completely uncharted waters here. Stocks at all time highs. Bonds at all time highs (with historically low yields). All FED and QE induced. Allocation to the market is a must. But if another 50% cut is coming, I would sure rather have 30% at stake instead of 80%...
And that 30% would still let me smile at night if the market continued to defy gravity and go up anyway...even if it makes no sense whatsover.