Closet_Gamer
Thinks s/he gets paid by the post
Sorry for yet another Roth Conversion thread, but I didn't see an old one that was on point for my specific question:
So, my question:
I have traditional IRAs, but I paid taxes on the principle when it went in because I also have a 401K that I max annually.
I now have funds that are under-water in those IRAs.
Can I designate those assets to be moved in a Roth conversion, and therefore do so tax free because I already paid taxes on the principle and there is no additional income from gain to tax in the transition?
Is this an opportunity to do a Roth Conversion with no tax consequence?
Thanks.
So, my question:
I have traditional IRAs, but I paid taxes on the principle when it went in because I also have a 401K that I max annually.
I now have funds that are under-water in those IRAs.
Can I designate those assets to be moved in a Roth conversion, and therefore do so tax free because I already paid taxes on the principle and there is no additional income from gain to tax in the transition?
Is this an opportunity to do a Roth Conversion with no tax consequence?
Thanks.