ladelfina
Thinks s/he gets paid by the post
- Joined
- Oct 18, 2005
- Messages
- 2,713
Hmmm.... I have always believed... and still do... that objects are only worth what people are willing to pay for them. If someone is willing to pay 1 million for a "900 s.f. pre-war box in CA " as you state it... then it IS in fact "worth" that much. How exactly do you "prove" how much something is worth? I can go to the local supermarket and buy a gallon of water for less than $1. But I would think if there was almost no water to be had, then that same gallon might be a lot more expensive.
Objects such as cars, homes, etc, do not have any inherant value. Their only value is in what people are willing to pay for them.
I personally believe the "true" reason behind the mortgage crisis that is tanking the markets right now, is that banks believed (and more often than not they are right), that the fed would always step in to protect them if things got out of control (like they are now... and the govt has). If the banks beleived there was no such protection, or at best just a tiny amount, then they would have been much less likely to do the risky business dealings that they did. Once again... it was business backed by the govt that started the problem... Sort of like adult children that still live at home, and are funded in part by their folks. They tend not to live a life of financial responsibility, because they do not have to.
I disagree with the part about a car or home having no inherent value but understand the rest..
To me, though, I don't see how a person can argue both sides simultaneously (not saying you are doing this, armor99... just a general observation):
A.) Houses should be worth whatever someone is willing to pay, yet
B.) complex financial derivatives should NOT be worth whatever someone is willing to pay.
A.) Financial models and the seller's opinion are unimportant in defining underlying 'true' house value, yet
B.) financial models and the seller's opinion are important in defining the underlying true value of an elaborately securitized loan package.
A.) The inherent value of a physical asset is not possible to define, yet
B.) the inherent value of a future income stream that requires assumptions about other economic variables like the very same underlying asset value (above) and continued employment or other pressures, is possible to define.
That's the part I don't get.