I've been getting the family ready to move (the Army is sending me to Colorado Springs), and I am now filling out an application for a rental in the area. There is a section on the application for Residence History, and under that, there is a line to indicate a previous landlord.
Written in small print beneath the line, it says:
Um... Wow. I just got a wave of unease when reading that.
It obviously assumes that if I "owned" property at my previous residence, I must have had a lender. What if I didn't have a lender? What if I had bought my previous residence and owned it outright? Does that mean my application would get turned down because I couldn't provide a chronicle of my debts?
Ok, I know that is taking it to extremes, but still, it's just a little bit creepy.
Joshua
Written in small print beneath the line, it says:
(If you owned property, please indicate lender.)
Um... Wow. I just got a wave of unease when reading that.
It obviously assumes that if I "owned" property at my previous residence, I must have had a lender. What if I didn't have a lender? What if I had bought my previous residence and owned it outright? Does that mean my application would get turned down because I couldn't provide a chronicle of my debts?
Ok, I know that is taking it to extremes, but still, it's just a little bit creepy.
Joshua