Rosie
Recycles dryer sheets
I'm probably answering my own question but I'd appreciate it if more knowledgeable souls than me would chime in.
I have a stock which I've been thinking of selling that has gone down considerably over the past several months. I'd have a large capital loss to offset cap gains on my 2015 taxes.
If, soon after selling the stock, I purchased shares of a mutual fund holding that same stock (along w many other stocks), would that trigger a wash sale?
From all the reading I've done, I've concluded no, it would not be a wash sale.
Apparently, selling shares of a mutual fund for shares of a different mutual fund (especially if the new fund tracks a different index, or is actively managed vs passively indexed) would not be considered a "substantially identical" purchase and would not trigger a wash sale situation. Presumably those different mutual funds, while not having identical holdings, would have many stocks in common.
So, logically, selling shares of an individual security and, w/in 31 days, buying shares of a mutual fund containing that security, would not trigger a wash sale. That's how I see it, anyways.
But I haven't found anything yet that specifically addresses this, so I'd appreciate some reassurance. Thanks!
I have a stock which I've been thinking of selling that has gone down considerably over the past several months. I'd have a large capital loss to offset cap gains on my 2015 taxes.
If, soon after selling the stock, I purchased shares of a mutual fund holding that same stock (along w many other stocks), would that trigger a wash sale?
From all the reading I've done, I've concluded no, it would not be a wash sale.
Apparently, selling shares of a mutual fund for shares of a different mutual fund (especially if the new fund tracks a different index, or is actively managed vs passively indexed) would not be considered a "substantially identical" purchase and would not trigger a wash sale situation. Presumably those different mutual funds, while not having identical holdings, would have many stocks in common.
So, logically, selling shares of an individual security and, w/in 31 days, buying shares of a mutual fund containing that security, would not trigger a wash sale. That's how I see it, anyways.
But I haven't found anything yet that specifically addresses this, so I'd appreciate some reassurance. Thanks!
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