As I understand it, competitive bidders submit YTM bids. The coupon is then chosen so that the highest accepted bid will yield a price as close to par as possible. Since the coupon is a multiple of 1/8, there may be a final price adjustment after the coupon is chosen. For example, if the highest accepted yield is 2.75%, the coupon will be 2.75% and the price 100. If it is 2.76%, the coupon will be 2.75%, and the price slightly below 100. All accepted bids (competitive and non-competitive) are awarded at the highest accepted YTM.
That's ok (redundant post). You explained it well.
Another thought. If my main reason for buying TIPS is long-term
real growth with inflation protection, can't it be argued that you want
a lower coupon and corresponding lower price ? In other words,
that it'd make more sense to buy the Jan '07 10-year issue (with
2.375% coupon and 97'ish price) on the secondary market, rather
than this week's with a 2.75%'ish coupon and par price ? The reason
is that the lower coupon/price gives you essentially get less interest
but more growth of principal, so it's (a little) like DRIP'ing, whereas
the larger interest payments (from the higher price/coupon of this
week's issue) is not getting the same real yield going forward,
depending on how I choose to invest that money. Of course, this
only makes sense assuming the same YTM for the new issue and
last Jaunary's, which is reasonable I think for Schwab's new bond
pricing policy, although the nice lady at Schwab did opine that the
auction will typically give one a few basis points higher YTM.
Does this make any sense ? I appreciate you (FIRE'51, Brewr, etc)
taking the time to help me understand this complicated investment !