So I own a house my Dad was living in until he passed away last November. The house is sitting empty as I have no intention of becoming a landlord. We can't sell it yet because we're keeping our income low for ACA coverage for one more year until my wife turns 65.
I have a niece that would like to move in for a year to save for a house. We would not charge her rent. I am under the assumption that even if I allow her to live there for free I'd still have to show the going rate for rent in the area as income? I believe I read this 15 or so years ago when I bought the house for my parents. I put my Dad's name on the deed with mine so he'd be co owner. Is this true? I get why they'd do that because anyone could say they're not charging rent and avoid the taxes.
It still kind of stinks that you can't help a family member out with your own property if this is true.
I have a niece that would like to move in for a year to save for a house. We would not charge her rent. I am under the assumption that even if I allow her to live there for free I'd still have to show the going rate for rent in the area as income? I believe I read this 15 or so years ago when I bought the house for my parents. I put my Dad's name on the deed with mine so he'd be co owner. Is this true? I get why they'd do that because anyone could say they're not charging rent and avoid the taxes.
It still kind of stinks that you can't help a family member out with your own property if this is true.