I am certain this has been asked before, but I cannot find it in the archives.
I feel I have a clear understanding of SWRs, and understand why the 4% rule works. However, it seem that the real world will most likely allow significantly higher WRs. THis is what I mean:
The 4% rate comes from assuming the worst possible returns based on historic data. In reality, actual returns are mopst likely going to be much higher than this. If you withdrawal 4% a year of you initial portfolio, adjusted yearly for inflation, you heirs are most likely going to be very, very wealthy. OTOH, I do not want to live on Alpo when I am 70, so I have to start conservative at 4%. However, why can't this be adjusted to 4% of my current balance at the start of each year. In other words, I restart my retirement each year. If the market went up 20% last year, then my SWR also goes up 20% (still 4% of the portfolio, but +20% in toital dollars). No need to ever adjust downward because the 4% rule states I am safe as long as I limit myself to 4% of the portfolio from any given starting date.
In summary, there is no difference between someone who has been retired for 10 years and has a $3M portfolio and someone whjo is retiring this year with a $3M portfolio. Both should be able to safely withdrawal $120k. However, under current logic (as I understandin it), the fellow who has been retired for 10 years may only be withdrawling $85k because than is 4% of his original portfolio (plus inflation adjustment).
What am I missing? Am I stating to obvious? Am I stupid and missing the obvious?
I feel I have a clear understanding of SWRs, and understand why the 4% rule works. However, it seem that the real world will most likely allow significantly higher WRs. THis is what I mean:
The 4% rate comes from assuming the worst possible returns based on historic data. In reality, actual returns are mopst likely going to be much higher than this. If you withdrawal 4% a year of you initial portfolio, adjusted yearly for inflation, you heirs are most likely going to be very, very wealthy. OTOH, I do not want to live on Alpo when I am 70, so I have to start conservative at 4%. However, why can't this be adjusted to 4% of my current balance at the start of each year. In other words, I restart my retirement each year. If the market went up 20% last year, then my SWR also goes up 20% (still 4% of the portfolio, but +20% in toital dollars). No need to ever adjust downward because the 4% rule states I am safe as long as I limit myself to 4% of the portfolio from any given starting date.
In summary, there is no difference between someone who has been retired for 10 years and has a $3M portfolio and someone whjo is retiring this year with a $3M portfolio. Both should be able to safely withdrawal $120k. However, under current logic (as I understandin it), the fellow who has been retired for 10 years may only be withdrawling $85k because than is 4% of his original portfolio (plus inflation adjustment).
What am I missing? Am I stating to obvious? Am I stupid and missing the obvious?