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Old 01-21-2015, 02:45 PM   #21
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Seems to me there is an easy way to solve the ball problem and that is to have the ref's hand out (and control) the balls that both teams must use. No more 'bring your own ball'. Simple.
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Old 01-21-2015, 04:20 PM   #22
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Old 01-21-2015, 05:11 PM   #23
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ERhoosier View Post
No. On offense each team plays with their own balls
NFL says Patriots used 11 underinflated footballs - Sports - The Boston Globe

http://static.nfl.com/static/content..._2013_Ball.pdf

And NFL ball controversies are not new- Ex-NFL QB Brad Johnson alleges that back in 2002 he paid a guy thousands $$ to scuff his balls before his winning performance in Super Bowl XXXVII. ()
Deflategate is nothing! Bucs QB ‘bribed’ to scuff Super Bowl balls | New York Post
I did not know that. Seems to invite shenanigans. I would think the referees should control the supply of game balls.

I also wonder if filling and measuring the ball pressure is done indoors at room temperature. If so, when you take them out into the cold, you would expect the internal pressure to drop. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 and V is constant.
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Old 01-21-2015, 06:36 PM   #24
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I did not know that. Seems to invite shenanigans. I would think the referees should control the supply of game balls.

I also wonder if filling and measuring the ball pressure is done indoors at room temperature. If so, when you take them out into the cold, you would expect the internal pressure to drop. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 and V is constant.
Agree 100% should be all be the same for both teams. MLB does not allow pitchers to supply their own balls, why should NFL?

FWIW- Temp difference does not explain "Deflategate".
Game time temp was 51F, or 21deg below room temp.
NFL spec ball pressure is 13psi +/- 0.5psi.
According to Ideal Gas Law:
PV/T= C (constant)
since V of a football at rest is constant, P2/T2=P1/T1, or P2= P1 * (T2/T1)
T is absolute Temp (i.e. degrees above absolute zero, -459.67F).
Assuming refs testing balls at room temp at NFL's 13psi, we would have on field ball pressure of
P=(510.67/531.67)*13psi= 12.48psi
Even allowing the specified 0.5psi tolerance, Pat's balls (reportedly) at 11psi would still violate league rules.
Not that it mattered to the game's outcome, but rules are rules.
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Old 01-21-2015, 07:47 PM   #25
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MLB does not allow pitchers to supply their own balls, why should NFL?
Actually MLB home team supplies balls for both teams, which has lead to it's own series of scandals and controversies as some teams accused others of doctoring balls or switching from livelier to deader balls between innings.
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Old 01-21-2015, 08:52 PM   #26
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Actually MLB home team supplies balls for both teams, which has lead to it's own series of scandals and controversies as some teams accused others of doctoring balls or switching from livelier to deader balls between innings.
Poor wording on my part. Should have specified that unlike NFL, both MLB teams play with the same set of balls. In any given game, balls are (supposed to be) the same for all pitchers. The rules do not allow one set of balls for home team's pitchers and a different set of balls for visiting pitchers.
You are correct that before each MLB game the home team gives the umpire a "supply of regulation baseballs, the number and make to be certified to the home club by the league president." (Rule 3.01c). Umpire is tasked with inspecting them before the game.
http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/downloads/y20...ball_rules.pdf

Of course MLB has had its' own ball (and bat) scandals. Always will be those trying to bend the rules
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Old 01-22-2015, 02:05 PM   #27
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I think most of this has been blown out of proportion due to social media and the 24 hr news outlets that monitor what's trending. The balls were replaced at half time and New England scored the majority of their points in the 2nd half.

Again, a simple cure is to have the NFL provide all game balls and keep them under the control of the ref's.
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