daylatedollarshort
Give me a museum and I'll fill it. (Picasso) Give me a forum ...
- Joined
- Feb 19, 2013
- Messages
- 9,358
No the main issue with the yield gap is due to funds holding too many low coupon bonds in their portfolio with extended durations that will keep their average coupon well below current rates for an extended period of time. You can't expect a fund with an average coupon of 2.8% to pay out distributions at current yields of 5%. This is the primary reason I warned people last February of the dangers of holding these passive bond funds as rates rise. Many people argued that I was wrong and that the SEC yields represent future distributions which includes coupon payments and capital gains. Well here we are one year later, and people are complaining about they yield gap between SEC, YTM, and distribution yields. I stated many times that bond funds are not bonds and not even good proxies for bonds. Instead of rehashing the past, it's time to move forward and accept that investors were duped by these asset managers and Bogleheads. What I can say that moving forward, is that it will be another brutal year for these passive bond funds as many investors head for the exits after they realize they were duped. Many will be angry as they were warned a year ago and held onto false hope. Remember, hope does not make a financial plan.
Okay, I'm a bit slow but I think I get it now. I did the math out on my simple example, 2 $100K bonds, 10% interest rate, 10 year term, market rates go to 15% right after the bond is bought, $100 share price. Each bond gets marked down to $74,906, share price goes to $74.91. The annual cash interest on the bond is only 13.35% to make up for getting back the full $100K at par. So that is the cash yield gap, in my example, the same as Pb4uski's example in a larger scale (I think, pb4uski can let me know if I have gotten it right).
The NAV loss happens when the market rates change and the bond is held on the fund's books for $74,906 instead of $100K. If interest rates don't change, and the bond is sold the next year, I don't see how that incurs any additional unrealized loss, as long as it is actually sold close to its book value. Using my example, the yield gap would be explained, as pb4uski showed us earlier, by the amortization of the principal, as part of the 15% instead of getting it all in cash to be distributed to the share holders. So I think that explains the yield gap, not the unrealized losses. Those should have already been accounted for in the NAV drop.