A comment by donheff concerning homophobia in the "PBS Boomer" thread got me thinkig. Rather than derail that discussion . . .
When someone makes an anti-gay remark, they (or the remark) is typicaly categorized as "homophobic." Does anyone else find that this confuses the issue? "Homophobia" = "fear of homosexuality." In most cases these comments are not indicative of fear concerning homosexuals or homosexuality, but instead contain value judgements about this behavior or homosexuals themselves. We don't say soemone is"afrophobic" or "Catholiphobic"-- we say they are anti-Black or anti-Catholic.
The problem:
-- It ascribes a motive without proving it. How do we know the comment is based on fear of gays? That's not apparent, and it's not helpful in addressing the issue. The comment could be based on fear, but it's just as likely to be based on moral teachings he/she has received, by a "gut rejection" of the behavior that even the speaker doesn't claim to understand, etc. In any case, the author's underlying mental state and motivation for making the comment generaly are not significant to the debate, or should be called out separately.
-- It lets the author of the comment off the hook. If someone has a true phobia, (which, by definition is an "irrational fear" of something), then we generally hold that person to a different standard on that issue. If I know a person is afraid of flying, then I don't expect him to feel the same way as i do as we board an airplane. And, as we have already agrreed the fear is irratonal, there's no point in reasong with the individual about this issue. So, if you believe those with ant-gay views should be confronted, it seems more consistent to label the comment with something that doesn't confer victimhood status on the author of it.
Anyway, it seems "anti-gay" or "anti-homesexual" is a more appropriate label than "homophobic," unless we are talking about a true clinical condition.
When someone makes an anti-gay remark, they (or the remark) is typicaly categorized as "homophobic." Does anyone else find that this confuses the issue? "Homophobia" = "fear of homosexuality." In most cases these comments are not indicative of fear concerning homosexuals or homosexuality, but instead contain value judgements about this behavior or homosexuals themselves. We don't say soemone is"afrophobic" or "Catholiphobic"-- we say they are anti-Black or anti-Catholic.
The problem:
-- It ascribes a motive without proving it. How do we know the comment is based on fear of gays? That's not apparent, and it's not helpful in addressing the issue. The comment could be based on fear, but it's just as likely to be based on moral teachings he/she has received, by a "gut rejection" of the behavior that even the speaker doesn't claim to understand, etc. In any case, the author's underlying mental state and motivation for making the comment generaly are not significant to the debate, or should be called out separately.
-- It lets the author of the comment off the hook. If someone has a true phobia, (which, by definition is an "irrational fear" of something), then we generally hold that person to a different standard on that issue. If I know a person is afraid of flying, then I don't expect him to feel the same way as i do as we board an airplane. And, as we have already agrreed the fear is irratonal, there's no point in reasong with the individual about this issue. So, if you believe those with ant-gay views should be confronted, it seems more consistent to label the comment with something that doesn't confer victimhood status on the author of it.
Anyway, it seems "anti-gay" or "anti-homesexual" is a more appropriate label than "homophobic," unless we are talking about a true clinical condition.