So, I'm not a casino or sports-type gambler. But in a way, I gambled on a home building contractor. That builder ended up abandoning the job and I'm out over $140K. Now, yes, lesson learned: don't deal with contractors that require upfront before-the-job-is-done payment. Just not worth the risk.
This guy was a Bible thumping preacher, his foreman was a retired Fire Department chief, and his wife and mother were helping with the business. Things started ok - but then he wouldn't show receipts or proof of material purchases (after claiming he had it all stored in his warehouse). That went on for months, with excuse after excuse on why he wasn't making any build progress. He did some framing work, or about 20% of the contracted work.
So, he no showed for the civil case, and a default judgement should be made sometime next week. But we know that the guy is still in town.
My question here is: can a loss like this be treated similar or same as a gambling loss? It's been suggested that large losses like this are in a different category and might be able to do a lump-sum deduction? Due to various other violations, the default judgement might be as much as 3X the damages -- but he clearly won't care (we've since learned he's done this to dozen other folks over the past decade), since (we think) he's given away whatever money he does get (such as to church donations to look good, house down payments for his kids, or just smoked the money away, etc.). I'm told the state is looking into his bank records (based on the cleared checks I gave him) - but at the speed-of-government he'll probably just end up long gone soon, and so I'm not very hopeful of any assets being found (at least, none tied to his name). It's a pretty big punch in the stomach, especially with the framing mostly completed such that have to decide to press on or demolish it.
But for taxes this season, I'm not sure what to do - if anything. I just use TaxAct typically and things are pretty straightforward. For a "large amount loss" is there anything more specific I should look into? Otherwise, the "losses" credit just seems to be capped at $3000/year?? Won't I need some wording in the default judgement as "proof of losses"?
This guy was a Bible thumping preacher, his foreman was a retired Fire Department chief, and his wife and mother were helping with the business. Things started ok - but then he wouldn't show receipts or proof of material purchases (after claiming he had it all stored in his warehouse). That went on for months, with excuse after excuse on why he wasn't making any build progress. He did some framing work, or about 20% of the contracted work.
So, he no showed for the civil case, and a default judgement should be made sometime next week. But we know that the guy is still in town.
My question here is: can a loss like this be treated similar or same as a gambling loss? It's been suggested that large losses like this are in a different category and might be able to do a lump-sum deduction? Due to various other violations, the default judgement might be as much as 3X the damages -- but he clearly won't care (we've since learned he's done this to dozen other folks over the past decade), since (we think) he's given away whatever money he does get (such as to church donations to look good, house down payments for his kids, or just smoked the money away, etc.). I'm told the state is looking into his bank records (based on the cleared checks I gave him) - but at the speed-of-government he'll probably just end up long gone soon, and so I'm not very hopeful of any assets being found (at least, none tied to his name). It's a pretty big punch in the stomach, especially with the framing mostly completed such that have to decide to press on or demolish it.
But for taxes this season, I'm not sure what to do - if anything. I just use TaxAct typically and things are pretty straightforward. For a "large amount loss" is there anything more specific I should look into? Otherwise, the "losses" credit just seems to be capped at $3000/year?? Won't I need some wording in the default judgement as "proof of losses"?
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