I got a question for all of you statistical analysis geniuses. I have a friend who describes himself as a permabear. He has been very bearish since 2004 (and lost a lot of money accordingly), but now he is absolutely certain that we entered a "secular bear market" in 2000 and that the 2003-2007 period was just a hickup in a long term down trend. Now I understand what a bear market is, but how exactly does one define a "secular" bear market? How long does a bear market have to be before it technically becomes secular? I have heard people say 10-15 years... And since the 1920's have we ever experienced one? In the late 60's and in the 70's we had somewhat of a sideway market but could that be qualified as a secular bear market?
Thanks for your answers.
Thanks for your answers.