Our corporation sponsored a retirement seminar through our credit union today. The speakers presented three methods of withdrawal from retirement accounts. The first was to withdraw interest from the principal, the second was a constant withdrawal rate from all investments, and the third was a constant withdrawal but drawing from asset classes having increasing risk over time. They were obviously pushing this third method as having a probability of sustaining higher withdrawal rates and the figure 6 or 7 percent were tossed about.
This favored method was simplistically explained as each asset class were a bucket of money. As you enter retirement you would first spend the bucket of money that was low risk fixed income, then maybe bond funds, then large cap stock funds, and so forth until the final bucket was small cap growth funds. You would spend each bucket entirely until cashing into the next bucket.
I talked with one of the presenters afterwards and mentioned a few words like the Trinity Study and reversion to the mean. His eyes glassed over as if he were recalled to his earlier days selling used cars. But the intention as I would think of it was obviously to have higher risk/return investments with a larger standard deviation of returns reserved for later retirement only Thus banking on the higher probability of returning to the mean. And then higher overall returns for the life of the portfolio.
Make any sense to you folks.
This favored method was simplistically explained as each asset class were a bucket of money. As you enter retirement you would first spend the bucket of money that was low risk fixed income, then maybe bond funds, then large cap stock funds, and so forth until the final bucket was small cap growth funds. You would spend each bucket entirely until cashing into the next bucket.
I talked with one of the presenters afterwards and mentioned a few words like the Trinity Study and reversion to the mean. His eyes glassed over as if he were recalled to his earlier days selling used cars. But the intention as I would think of it was obviously to have higher risk/return investments with a larger standard deviation of returns reserved for later retirement only Thus banking on the higher probability of returning to the mean. And then higher overall returns for the life of the portfolio.
Make any sense to you folks.