Gone4Good
Give me a museum and I'll fill it. (Picasso) Give me a forum ...
- Joined
- Sep 9, 2005
- Messages
- 5,381
Did I misunderstand?
Perhaps. I don't know, I think we're talking past one another.
Maybe a simple example will help.
Assume I have a $100 portfolio and need to take real withdrawals of 4%. I have two securities to choose from, a risky asset with 5% expected real returns and a riskless asset with guaranteed 3% real returns. I can't reach my return objectives with the riskless asset alone, so I must take some risk. A 50/50 allocation is the lowest amount of risk I can take and still have my expected returns meet my requirements.
Assume that after 1 year, the risky asset doubles in value. My 50/50 portfolio is now worth $150. Because of my windfall, I can more than meet my withdrawal requirements by just investing in the lower returning, riskless asset ($150 * 3% = $45). In light of this development, should I reduce, increase, or maintain my exposure to the risky asset? Conventional wisdom says I'm supposed to rebalance back to 50/50. You suggested possibly increasing exposure to maximize earnings from the favorable trend.
But the simple truth is that I don't need the risky asset at all now. The only reason to own it, is to hope for additional windfalls. But there is another reason to reduce my risk exposure. After an asset class doubles in value (or after a long bull run) future return expectations almost certainly come down. So not only do I need it less, I also expect it to do less for me. The likelihood of another windfall is lower, while the downside risk is the same or higher. So my choice is to sell it down.