whitestick
Recycles dryer sheets
- Joined
- Apr 5, 2005
- Messages
- 415
I realize this is unusual, but here is my question. Given the discussion around taking SS at 62, and then paying it back at a later date, say when you are at normal retirement age, then you can get the full retirement age payment, rather then the earlier, lower payment.
Now, IF your AGI happens to be high enough that you fall under the rule that reduces your SS payment by 50 cents on the dollar for all over a certain limit, I think it's 48K per couple, and let's say for argument sake that your AGI is high enough to reduce your actual SS payments to 0$ for the year.
1. Does that mean that you pay nothing back at the full retirement age, since you received nothing, and then qualify at the higher rate?
2 Before you question my sanity - would that then probably guarentee that you would be subject to whatever means testing rules that may be in effect at the time of 62, rather then later at full retirement age. Assuming of course that once you start SS, you would be grandfathered in, and not subject to then new means testing before re-qualifying.
Now, IF your AGI happens to be high enough that you fall under the rule that reduces your SS payment by 50 cents on the dollar for all over a certain limit, I think it's 48K per couple, and let's say for argument sake that your AGI is high enough to reduce your actual SS payments to 0$ for the year.
1. Does that mean that you pay nothing back at the full retirement age, since you received nothing, and then qualify at the higher rate?
2 Before you question my sanity - would that then probably guarentee that you would be subject to whatever means testing rules that may be in effect at the time of 62, rather then later at full retirement age. Assuming of course that once you start SS, you would be grandfathered in, and not subject to then new means testing before re-qualifying.