This sounds good to me. But then see below ...
I ran a VPW simulation to show (to myself) that a buffer would help a lot in a downturn. This is just a back-of-the-envelope simulation on a $1M portfolio split 60/40. I modified VPW for 3.5% withdrawals. The start year 1968 is a particularly bad year because there were 2 recessions (1969 and 1973) during that time plus a lot of inflation in the 1970's.
Below is the simulation result. I think the age 65 to 75 are particularly interesting because active retirees might need more discretionary money then. Suppose this couple needed maybe $30k from the portfolio. You can see there are a lot of years (far right column Total Income) that were well below $30k. So this case would need a lot of buffer money. Also note that the portfolio was cut nearly in half (inflation adjusted balance column) by age 79.
Makes me think I should do more homework on this issue. Hopefully we will not see such a bad sequence.
I'd be interested in what other's think of this simulation.
I have run scenarios with % remaining portfolio (I have summarized these in another thread) and what happens to income under the worst case historic scenarios.
Most of the worst case scenarios occur before 1920, but 1966 is the worst in the past 50 years. I have looked at how real income reduces, and what kind of supplementation from short-term reserves might be needed. I am using a 50% Total Stock Market, 50% 5 year treasuries portfolio for my model, so the runs will vary a bit from yours. I am also using 3.5% as the % withdrawal rate.
For the %remaining portfolio method, starting in 1966, 3.5% withdrawals got down to 52% of starting income (keeping up with inflation, so real) after 14 years before gradually recovering. But several pre-1920 cases were worse, with a 1906 run taking you down to 47% real income after 15 years before recovering. In both cases we are looking at generally declining income year after year, so you are talking about an extended case of declining income dropping to under 80% after years 8 or 10, and dropping more rapidly thereafter for the next 5 to 8 years before finally turning around. So - yes, under the most extreme scenarios this is very serious. You would need 5 to 7 years of pre-tax income to supplement these scenarios to maintain current spending at 100% real. In practice it would actually not be quite that high though as you only need to supplement your after-tax income assuming your reserves are in taxable funds. So modeling gets a bit more complex, but I would assume 4 to 6 might do it for 15% tax rate, less if your tax rate is higher.
Currently, my pre-tax spending (budget) is less than 80% of the 3.5% I withdraw from my portfolio. So I could suffer a 20% portfolio hit before needing to start dipping into any reserves set aside to supplement the reduced (real) income from our portfolio. We are currently underspending even this budget.
My current budget also includes a great deal of discretionary spending (including gifting), so I can cut quite a bit out without too much pain. I decided to look at a combination of belt-tightening and using reserves for handling a really really bad sequence like 1906 or 1966.
I looked at what kind of belt tightening would be required if I set aside approximately one year of my current after-tax budget as a bear market reserve. Some calculations I used came up with a number 3% above the current budget based on Dec 31 value of my current portfolio. I used a model of not drawing on these reserves until my income dropped to 80% of current income (which would meet my current budget - still 100%), and then being willing to start belt tightening so that my budget drops to 87.5% of current budget if income drops below 70% of current (portfolio down >30% real), and then 75% of my budget if income drops below 60% of current budget (portfolio down >40% real). None of the scenarios I ran required worse belt tightening than that.
The belt-tightening actually won't be as bad because my taxes drop significantly when my assets drop, even going to zero, so my after-tax income won't drop nearly as much as my pre-tax income. But that's another level of refinement, so I didn't model it for these cases. I just know it from experience.
From my modeling, if I weren't willing to do any belt tightening, then I would need to set aside a reserve of around 2 to 2.5 years of my after-tax budget to maintain spending at current levels (real) at 80% of my current withdrawal. So that's certainly a reasonable alternative. I have certainly have more than one year of budget in short-term funds (beyond current year funds), but I chose to only cordon off around one year as "only touch under dire circumstances" and the remainder is available to spend in the near term as I see fit. BTW I was able to move this bear market reserve into 3% CDs recently which will help with maintaining the fund.
I mainly did this to see how much of my short-term funds were truly free to spend now versus how much should be set aside and not touched unless something really bad happened including the portfolio dropping >20% and staying down long enough for us to have reduced our other short-term funds considerably.