I have a (single) relative around 69 y.o. who is receiving SS and not in great health. He can repay SS he had received since he was around 66. How would one decide whether this makes sense?
First, is there a formula to know how much he would start receiving? My understanding is it's
current monthly amount * (100 + 8 * (age-66)) / 100
assuming 8% does not compound. (or does it?) Is this precise formula or is there something more precise?
(Note: age 66 is approximate because there was a phase out period but I can adjust for that.)
Say above formula is correct... then, consider what $100 per year he had paid would give him - he would have to return $300 for the 3 years (from 66 to 69) that he had received the payments. He would then start getting 124/year, i.e. extra $24/year (inflation adjusted). This means that he would have to live at least for ~300/24 = 12.4 years to make the switch worthwhile. Does this logic make sense?
First, is there a formula to know how much he would start receiving? My understanding is it's
current monthly amount * (100 + 8 * (age-66)) / 100
assuming 8% does not compound. (or does it?) Is this precise formula or is there something more precise?
(Note: age 66 is approximate because there was a phase out period but I can adjust for that.)
Say above formula is correct... then, consider what $100 per year he had paid would give him - he would have to return $300 for the 3 years (from 66 to 69) that he had received the payments. He would then start getting 124/year, i.e. extra $24/year (inflation adjusted). This means that he would have to live at least for ~300/24 = 12.4 years to make the switch worthwhile. Does this logic make sense?