Trying to understand a little more/better the tax consequences of a Roth conversion.
The conversion itself is easy, it is all ordinary income in that tax year, and you will pay whatever marginal tax rate that conversion income pushes you into. However, I believe, especially for people who have significant taxable brokerage accounts with 50/50 stock/bond allocations, that the Roth conversion adds even more tax consequences that I do not see discussed.
For example, if you ONLY have $200,000 of qualified dividends as income (and for ease let's say all your bonds are Muni bonds and you live in a state that does not have an income tax) and are MFJ, I believe you will pay $0 in taxes on the first $89,251, and then 15% on the remainder amount for a total tax of $16,612. I know there will be deductions, credits, etc. but assume none of that for this 'simple' example.
If in the same above scenario, you do a $100,000 Roth conversion the same year, not only would you pay the tax on the Roth conversion, but then that $89K of qualified dividends that were in essence tax free now becomes taxable at the 15% qualified dividend rate and I believe the Obamacare investment tax of 3.8% would kick in (because now your MAGI is above $250,000). So, the total tax on the Roth conversion is much more than just the tax liability on the $100,000 that I convert, it pushes some qualified dividends into high brackets and kicks in the 3.8% tax on ALL of the investment income.
Am I correct, or am I completely missing the boat here? Thanks.
The conversion itself is easy, it is all ordinary income in that tax year, and you will pay whatever marginal tax rate that conversion income pushes you into. However, I believe, especially for people who have significant taxable brokerage accounts with 50/50 stock/bond allocations, that the Roth conversion adds even more tax consequences that I do not see discussed.
For example, if you ONLY have $200,000 of qualified dividends as income (and for ease let's say all your bonds are Muni bonds and you live in a state that does not have an income tax) and are MFJ, I believe you will pay $0 in taxes on the first $89,251, and then 15% on the remainder amount for a total tax of $16,612. I know there will be deductions, credits, etc. but assume none of that for this 'simple' example.
If in the same above scenario, you do a $100,000 Roth conversion the same year, not only would you pay the tax on the Roth conversion, but then that $89K of qualified dividends that were in essence tax free now becomes taxable at the 15% qualified dividend rate and I believe the Obamacare investment tax of 3.8% would kick in (because now your MAGI is above $250,000). So, the total tax on the Roth conversion is much more than just the tax liability on the $100,000 that I convert, it pushes some qualified dividends into high brackets and kicks in the 3.8% tax on ALL of the investment income.
Am I correct, or am I completely missing the boat here? Thanks.