oscar1
Recycles dryer sheets
- Joined
- Jul 25, 2013
- Messages
- 140
If her boyfriend buys a house (titled to him) pre-marriage, and they do get married some time after, but then divorce in, say, 10 years, is she entitled to any portion of the house asset? Reason I ask is suppose we give them a nice marriage gift of $30k to help with paying down the house? In Texas i think the rule of “separate property” applies. Meaning what he brought into the marriage is his. If she were to help pay down the mortgage, perhaps with a gift form her Mom and Dad, it would still be ‘his’ if they split. How to avoid this? Does he need to add her name to the mortgage? Does she need to get some agreement that any sizable contribution to the house be reimbursed if they slit later? Any advice?