- Joined
- Nov 27, 2014
- Messages
- 9,251
In my life, I gave my daughters a house and an education. DD1 did not want to go to school. DD2 did and I paid the full boat - about $100K. Later in life, DD1 had kids and needed to get into a house. I bought one for around $100K and thought to myself, that's good, I was fair to financially helping launch my daughters.
Recently, I formally gave the house to DD1. Prior to the change, me and DW were on the title, however, we only did that to protect DD1. Now we removed ourselves from the title and DD1 and her husband own the house outright.
It's no big deal, but the question of gifting our share of the house came up. Which, leads to my question. Why would giving DD1 a house be considered any differently than giving DD2 an education? Both were provided about $100K and both were adults at the time. Again, nothing is going to change, but it just made me wonder why they are thought of differently. Any ideas?
Recently, I formally gave the house to DD1. Prior to the change, me and DW were on the title, however, we only did that to protect DD1. Now we removed ourselves from the title and DD1 and her husband own the house outright.
It's no big deal, but the question of gifting our share of the house came up. Which, leads to my question. Why would giving DD1 a house be considered any differently than giving DD2 an education? Both were provided about $100K and both were adults at the time. Again, nothing is going to change, but it just made me wonder why they are thought of differently. Any ideas?