This year I did my first Roth conversion. I rolled $52k from a tIRA to a Roth at Schwab. I am paying estimated income tax on the $52k quarterly (painful). I understand that the 5-year clock starts effective January 2020 for this conversion and that at the end of 5 years both the converted amount and any gains are available tax-free (and penalty-free if over 59.5 years of age).
When I look at the cost basis for the Roth it is $47k, which leads me to believe that the cost basis reflects what I paid for the shares when I added them to the tIRA in the years prior to 2020. But since I’m paying income tax on the full $52k conversion, shouldn’t my cost basis step up to that amount?
Seems to me there’s a potential for the IRS to consider funds in this Roth account above $47k to be earnings and therefore subject to additional tax if accessed prior to the end of the 5-year holding period, even though I will have paid income taxes on the entire amount!
What am I missing? Why doesn’t the cost basis of the Roth equal the amount of the conversion since taxes on the full amount are paid in the year of the conversion?
When I look at the cost basis for the Roth it is $47k, which leads me to believe that the cost basis reflects what I paid for the shares when I added them to the tIRA in the years prior to 2020. But since I’m paying income tax on the full $52k conversion, shouldn’t my cost basis step up to that amount?
Seems to me there’s a potential for the IRS to consider funds in this Roth account above $47k to be earnings and therefore subject to additional tax if accessed prior to the end of the 5-year holding period, even though I will have paid income taxes on the entire amount!
What am I missing? Why doesn’t the cost basis of the Roth equal the amount of the conversion since taxes on the full amount are paid in the year of the conversion?