pb4uski
Give me a museum and I'll fill it. (Picasso) Give me a forum ...
.....Along these same lines, shouldn't a dividend investor think of "principal" as the number of shares of dividend-paying stock, rather than the value of those shares? It's the shares (not their value) that throw off dividend income each year. If he sells a share (regardless of whether it has quadrupled in value or been cut in half) he has eaten into his principal. No?....
No, he has not eaten into his "principal" because his expectation is that his return will come from both dividends and appreciation rather than just interest.
Using your framework if an investor invests $100 in a CD that grows to $105 and takes $5 out then he has not invaded principal, but if the same investor buys 100 shares of stock for $10 that appreciates to $105 and he sells $5 worth of stock then he has invaded principal. That just doesn't make sense. Under my construct, neither investor would invade principal until they take cash out that reduces their balance to below $100.
As a total return investor, I'm indifferent as to whether my return is in dividends or appreciation - especially since they are both taxed at preferential rates (0% in my case).