Looking for a critique of my understanding of Open Social Security.
I am limited to 40% of my FRA benefit due to the Windfall Elimination Provision and only 13 years of "substantial earnings." Wife has no such limitation.
So on OSS I put in 40% of my FRA projected benefit and wife's full benefit and it tells me to collect next June aged 62, and to begin her benefit and my spousal benefit in 2034, aged 70 (her) and 72 (me). We are both about 10 years retired.
Is this just a calculation of maximum benefit? We won't need the money next year, but if I'm going to switch to a spousal benefit in the ensuing years perhaps that is just free money. We are likely to start hers before 2034. Does that change the consideration?
Appreciate any insights.
I am limited to 40% of my FRA benefit due to the Windfall Elimination Provision and only 13 years of "substantial earnings." Wife has no such limitation.
So on OSS I put in 40% of my FRA projected benefit and wife's full benefit and it tells me to collect next June aged 62, and to begin her benefit and my spousal benefit in 2034, aged 70 (her) and 72 (me). We are both about 10 years retired.
Is this just a calculation of maximum benefit? We won't need the money next year, but if I'm going to switch to a spousal benefit in the ensuing years perhaps that is just free money. We are likely to start hers before 2034. Does that change the consideration?
Appreciate any insights.